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Apologies for my dull post. The sentence actually says "wrongful credit" which means he didn't notify the PCT that he had received these monies, it doesn't mean he transferred them himself. The legal argument hinges on intent to fraud. The 1968 Theft Act allows for mitigation due to repayment. Since he did not meet the criteria under Section 15A (obtaining the money by deception), there's no prison time. This may sound technical but to my rather old LLB brain it sounds like the PCT accidentally vired funds into his personal bank account, which he then moved into those belonging to relatives and used for purposes you could tenuously link to work e.g. the leased car. He should've notified his employers of the incorrect transfer but when the issue was raised, confessed and paid it back. I'm intrigued by the amount as it sounds as if e.g. he was paid ten times his monthly salary each month, or something similar.